ICE 008

A femoral arterial blood gas sample is obtained from a 41 year old man.

  • Describe and interpret the results
  • What interventions does he require ?

 

pH                     7.53

PaO2                       24.6    mmHg

paCO2                   13.3    mmHg

HCO3                10.8    mmol/L

SaO2                       54%

 

These blood gases are grossly abnormal.

They demonstrate:

  •  moderate to severe alkalaemia
  •  profound hypoxaemia
  •  severe respiratory alkalosis
  •  marked metabolic acidosis

To fully interpret them, it’s helpful to know that the samples were obtained when the barometric pressure was 272mmHg and the PiO2 47mmHg, making the expected alveolar O2 only 30mmHg. So they have an increased A-a gradient.

They are the averaged results from 4 climbers who had just summited Mt Everest – the ABGs were taken without supplemental oxygen at an altitude of 8400m. All had normal psychomotor function at the time. Typically such gases would be judged as inconsistent with life and would mandate aggressive and immediate resuscitation. However these climbers just need to descend. At 7000m their O2 content (but not SaO2) is normal.

That it is possible to survive & function with such gases shows the degree to which we can acclimatise to altitude. Sudden exposure to such altitude would cause loss of consciousness in unacclimatised individuals. This research will inform ICU care for patients with severe hypoxaemia.

Reference  Grocott M et al, N Engl J Med 2009:360:140-149  http://archive.is/CFY8

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

Paediatric Dermatology challenge

You are just about to see the next patient waiting in your ED – a 3 year old boy brought in by his concerned mother after she noticed the appearance of a generalised skin rash overnight. He had already been unwell for two days with a sore throat and fever, and had started a course of oral antibiotics the previous day at his GPs surgery. The triage nursing observations show his vital signs to be normal but note he is a little lethargic.

1. Before you go in, how do you think about the differential diagnoses you might encounter? (Or do you just go in without a plan and see what you find?)

In this child, I think about his potential diagnoses in four groups:

a)    Serious/mustn’t be missed

-       Meningococcaemia/septicaemia

-       Stevens Johnson syndrome

-       Anaphylaxis

-       Kawasaki

b)   Related to antibiotic therapy

-       Urticaria / angioedema

-       Drug reaction

c)    Related to the URTI

-       Viral exanthem, eg measles

-       Erythema multiforme

d)   Coincidental/unrelated to current illness

This isn’t meant to be an all-encompassing list, just a way of taking a slightly structured approach to assessment of the rash, as opposed to just hoping I “pattern recognise” something when seeing him.

2. Describe and interpret this photograph of his rash

Paediatric dermatology challenge

There is a generalized, well demarcated, pleomorphic skin rash affecting the abdomen and arms. Each lesion has a reddened outer margin, then paler pink zone, with a dusky or violaceous central area. Hard to tell from the image whether the lesions are raised/palpable, so unclear whether macular or papular. The most likely diagnosis here is Erythema multiforme minor (secondary to the infection) with a fixed drug reaction (to the antibiotic) second most likely.  It is important to closely examine all mucosae to exclude SJS; these were completely normal in this boy.

3.

Erythema multiforme minor is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves over a few weeks and is treated symptomatically. I discontinued the Amoxycillin he was taking and admitted him for observation as he was a little lethargic. Routine checks of his urine and blood tests were unremarkable.

For all matters dermatological, I highly recommend Dermnet NZ.

It’s a great online resource, here’s their take on Erythema multiforme

ICE 007

A 57 year old man presents to the ED with 18 hours of severe upper abdominal pain, fever, nausea and vomiting. He looks jaundiced, his HR is 120bpm, BP 110/60, RR 22 and his temperature is 37.8oC. He is tender and guarded in his right upper quadrant on abdominal palpation.

  • Describe the blood test results
  • What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • What treatment is required in ED?
  • What ongoing management is required?

 

 

Test Value Units Ref Range
Hb 120 g/L 115-165
WCC 12.2 x 109/L 3.5-11
Neutrophils 9.7 x 109/L 1.5-7.5
Platelets 246 x 109/L 150-450
Total protein 76 g/L 60-80
Albumin 44 g/L 35-50
ALP 577 IU/L 40-115
ALT 972 IU/L <65
GGT 226 IU/L <55
Bilirubin (tot) 89.4 micromol/L <25
Lipase 8523 IU/L 8-78

 

The bloods show a mild neutrophilia, grossly elevated lipase and substantially deranged liver functions tests. His jaundice is confirmed biochemically and the pattern of LFT derangement with all of the ALP, ALT and GGT elevated is a mixed one (suggesting both hepatitic and obstructive changes)

The most likely diagnosis given the clinical context is gallstone pancreatitis & ascending cholangitis due to a stone obstructing the lower  biliary tract. An important differential is severe alcoholic pancreatitis.

In ED this patient needs;

  • Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation
  • Nil by mouth and NG tube
  • Analgesia – titrated IV morphine or fentanyl
  • Antibiotics – parenteral broad spectrum, for example  “triple therapy” amoxycillin /gentamycin / metronidazole

It is essential that his ongoing management be in a centre that can perform an ERCP as relief of his biliary obstruction is critical in resolution of the illness. The severity of such a presentation should not be underestimated. There is a significant mortality and a range of potential complications such as pancreatic pseudocyst formation.

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

Short Answer Questions in Emergency Medicine

Short Answer Questions (SAQs) are one of the three sections of the ACEM Fellowship written examination, wherein ACEM examiners assess the candidate’s ability to:

  • Demonstrate factual knowledge
  • Analyse, synthesise and prioritise diagnostic and management options in EM
  • Discriminate between various assessment and management options based on evidence based principles
  • Apply safe decision making
  • Demonstrate skills in team/resource management and EM administration
  • Apply principles of clinical governance
  • Communicate competently in written medium at professional level
  • Demonstrate time management skills to deal with a range of topics in limited time

The ACEM format for SAQs is eight questions in 130 minutes (approximately 15 minutes per question) with no reading time. All questions are evenly weighted, and marked out of 10 by two examiners to give a single agreed mark. An overall pass in this section requires a score of 5 or more in a minimum of five questions, and a combined score across the 8 questions of 40 or greater.

I have already outlined the creation and testing process for new Visual Aid Questions and this is essentially the same for SAQs. A subcommittee of the Fellowship Examination committee creates new questions with an eye on the overall curriculum, then workshops them internally, and lastly roadtests them on blinded examiners to fine tune the final version used in the exam. There is a range of commonly used types of SAQs – typically these focus on broad assessment or management, or ask the candidate to discuss or contrast/compare different options or conditions.

It’s vitally important to read and analyse what the question is actually asking before you commence writing.

As there is now no reading time, I strongly advise you to spend the first minute or so of your allotted time for each question deciding on the key issues, and carefully answering exactly what the question asks you. This will help to prevent you spending valuable time writing on aspects of the topic that have NOT been asked. This is a very common error and one that can be avoided largely with good technique.

Ensure that the style and content of your answer is appropriate for the actual question setting.

By this I mean that few questions in the exam are about immediately life threatening emergencies, and thus to use a template style approach that starts with “team approach, full monitoring, two large bore IVs and ABC’s” for most questions is inappropriate, and risks sounding generic/non-consultant like. These statements aren’t wrong in themselves, but try your best to use them when that is in fact what you would do in real practice in the setting of that question. I don’t like them as  ”safe mode” template statements in non-emergency scenarios.

Conversely, there are some words or phrases that I find do work well in most answers and strike the right consultant tone include “seek and treat…”, “consider…”, “calm professional approach”, “minimise time to definitive care”, “ensure thorough documentation” and “assume leadership, and control situation by…”

 

Tips for success at SAQs

  1. Practise to time – this appears obvious but repeatedly doing SAQs to the time limit is vital. Performance will improve and gradually evolve to a concise style that highlights important positive and negative elements in a “consultant” style.
  2. I believe there is much to be gained by dedicating some sessions to writing SAQ answer outlines rather than always doing full answers to time. Allow yourself 7-8 minutes for each question and put the focus on quickly assessing the key elements required in the answer, listing the section headings, and the most important “bullet point” components of each section.
  3. Do some SAQs from previous ACEM examinations – I suggest you focus mainly on those from the last few years. There are published examiner comments on these in the relevant examination reports online to guide you
  4. Don’t stick just to previous examination questions though – create your own and share with other trainees who are preparing like you. Try and predict areas of recent prominence or controversy perhaps that may generate SAQs, or important areas of the curriculum that haven’t been asked for a while.
  5. Show your questions and answers to ACEM examiners or trusted, experienced FACEMs and listen to their feedback
  6. At least once before the exam, do eight SAQs to time and get them marked, its very different to one or two at a time, and a real test of your technique. This could be as part of one of the organised practice exams, or a self-organised version.
  7. Your writing must be legible. Examiners can’t mark what they can’t read.
  8. Don’t ever rewrite the question at the start of your answer.
  9. A list of key points on the first page can be valuable to set the scene and demonstrate to the examiner that you understand the major issues raised by the question. They are not always necessary, but if included, I recommend that there never be more than three, and that they should be no more than a sentence each. During my marking of the last Fellowship examination, many candidates had introductory key issues that ran to two pages that were then duplicated later in the answer – this is extremely poor technique and can lessen the potential overall mark because of the flawed time management.
  10. Whenever a question is framed using one of the ACEM defined words, (eg Discuss, Assess, Manage…), ensure that your answer addresses this correctly and includes the relevant sections therein. This is exactly what the examiners do when deciding on their pass criteria before marking.
  11. Leave spaces between each major section of your answer, and have a heading and/or underlining for all important areas. This makes the answer neater, more structured and organised, and allows you to easily add additional points if they come to you later
  12. If time and your knowledge permits, the inclusion of a final section in your answer aimed at identifying controversies/pitfalls, or emerging areas of knowledge of the topic always reads well.
  13. During the examination itself, always move on to the next question at the end of each allotted time interval (approximately 15 minutes) as it’s virtually impossible to make up time once you’re behind the clock. If however this still happens, put all the information you would have expanded on in your last question as a bulleted outline so the examiner will at least see the scope of your intended answer – it might still be enough for a pass! This is much better than writing an unfinished answer for the, say 6 minutes, that was all you the time you had remaining.

If you have other tried and true techniques I’d love to hear your contribution.

ICE 006

A 24 year old man is brought into the ED with an injury suffered playing touch rugby. He tried to stop and turn suddenly just as another player collided with him. He felt immediate right knee pain and has only been able to hobble a few steps since.

  • What abnormality can be seen on his AP Xray?
  • Explain the significance of this finding
  • What treatment is required?

Segond fracture

The xray findings are subtle and consist of a fine bone fragment (about 10mm long and up to 4mm wide) seen at the border of the upper part of the lateral tibial plateau. This is a so called “Segond” fracture*

The unimpressive radiographic findings belie the severity of the underlying knee injury. The mechanism of the Segond fracture is a combination of bowing and twisting (technically a combination of varus stress and internal tibial rotation) of the knee . The bone fragment seen is an avulsion fracture from the lateral ligament complex but the real significance is that there are usually also injuries to the anterior cruciate and medial meniscus. So it represents a major knee joint disruption with potential for significant instability.

The most appropriate management of meniscal and cruciate injuries is controversial and will vary in elite versus recreational athletes. Nevertheless the presence of a Segond fracture makes chronic instability and pain likely so these patients should have an early orthopaedic assessment. An MRI would be indicated if surgery is planned. In the interim, standard care will include RICE, analgesia, splint and a short period of non weight bearing.

*Who was Dr Segond?

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

A red pacemaker?

A local doctor refers an active well 78 year old man to your ED. He had just attended for his regular blood pressure checkup that morning and mentioned in passing that his pacemaker had been a bit red for a few days. Intrigued, the doctor suggested he take a look at it…

Pacemaker erosion and infection

The pacemaker has eroded through the subcutaneous tissue pocket and skin, which is now red with a purulent exudate. There is an old midline sternotomy scar. The breakdown of the skin over this cardiac implanted electronic device (CIED) provides a potential direct route of entry for bacteria to the blood and endocardium and mandates its urgent removal and assessment for replacement. Antibiotics must be administered parenterally to treat/prevent bacteraemia and endocarditis, with Staphylococcal species the most likely pathogen in this setting.

He’s currently well, with normal vital signs and general examination. He’s a little surprised at all the fuss this has caused… What are the next steps to take now?

Investigations performed:

Bedside          ECG  BSL

Blood              FBE, U+E, CRP, ESR, Blood cultures x 3

Radiology       CXR

Other              Skin swabs for M+C+S

After consultation with his cardiologist and an infectious disease specialist, he was commenced on IV Meropenem and Vancomycin, and admitted for device removal. As an inpatient he had a transoesophageal echo later that day to assess for presence of endocarditis vegetations, this was fortunately normal.

This is an example of an infection related to a cardiac implanted electronic device (CIED) On this occasion there was no evidence of associated serious infection on his initial workup or subsequent blood cultures, and another CIED was re-sited on the opposite side several days later.

So to recap the major goals of his management:

  • Assess for clinical and investigation evidence of infection
  • Early consultation with cardiology and ID
  • Initiate broad spectrum parenteral antibiotics
  • Remove IECD
  • Assess whether replacement is required
  • Replace when blood cultures negative > 72 hours

More information in this excellent 2011 CCJM review by Dababneh and Sohail

ICE 005

A 27 year old man had a dizzy spell and then collapsed while playing indoor soccer. Bystanders thought that he had a brief loss of consciousness but he woke up quickly and now feels well. He denies any current symptoms.

  • Describe the abnormal features on his ECG
  • What is the likely diagnosis and underlying abnormality?
  • What ongoing investigation and treatment may he need?

Brugada syndrome

The ECG shows sinus rhythm at  84 beats per minute with unusual downward sloping ST segment elevation in leads V1 and V2.  The T waves in both V1 and V2 are inverted. This T wave inversion alone can be a normal variant in younger people but the ST segment changes are pathological.

This ECG is typical of so called “Brugada” syndrome. There are 3 reported ECG variants of this syndrome, all of which involve ST segment elevation in V1 and V2. This ECG shows the most common Type 1 variant. All are thought to be due to a genetically determined abnormality in sodium channel function, a “channelopathy”. It is most commonly found in those of South East Asian, and to a lesser extent Mediterranean descent. It is a high risk syndrome, associated with sudden cardiac death at a young age due to VF or polymorphic VT.

Collapse during exercise in a young person should always be investigated carefully as the differential must include underlying cardiac abnormalities such as Brugada syndrome, prolonged QT syndrome and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Brugada syndrome patients should see a cardiologist for electrophysiologic studies and possible implantable defibrillator insertion. Avoid giving them sodium channel blocking drugs in ED.

More information at ECGpedia

 

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

Just another wrist fracture?

A 10 year old boy is referred to your ED from a nearby country town for orthopaedic management of a fractured left wrist. This was sustained in a fall from playground monkey bars earlier that day, and is his only injury. At the country hospital, he had been splinted and Xrayed, had oral analgesia administered, and a sling applied. He’s an otherwise well boy who last had oral intake 5 hours earlier, just before his accident.

Describe his Xrays

Salter Harris 2 Radius fracture with anterior angulation

Salter Harris 2 Radius fracture with anterior angulation

The Xray demonstrates a displaced comminuted Salter-Harris 2 fracture of the distal radial metaphysis that involves the epiphysis with associated anterior (volar) angulation. The classification of physeal fractures by Salter-Harris is widely used, with type 2 being by far the most common encountered.

Salter Harris 2 Radius fracture with anterior angulation

(Check out this mnemonic too)

Distal radius physeal fractures are most common in older children and are usually displaced posteriorly (dorsally) as the wrist is hyperextended on impact. Anterior angulation/displacement suggests a flexed posture as we see in the mechanism of a Smith’s fracture.

Salter Harris 2 Radius fracture with anterior angulation

Due to its inherent instability (and thus tendency to slip out of alignment), this fracture can require internal fixation to achieve maintenance of correct position. Overall, most radial physeal fractures have good functional outcomes with correct treatment and significant impairment of growth is unusual.

What are the important steps to take now?

The two broad goals in the care of this boy are to make a thorough re-assessment of his injury and to expedite its orthopaedic review and definitive treatment.

  • confirm the history, seeking evidence for other potentially missed injuries
  • examine the patient generally for trauma, and the affected arm carefully, (with  full exposure of the limb), for skin integrity, neurovascular status and hand movements.
  • re-splint and keep elevated in sling, additional analgesia as required
  • discuss with surgeon
  • keep nil by mouth in case anaesthesia required
  • explain findings and plan to patient and parents
  • document clearly

On this occasion, the surgeon requested a CT to help make a decision on best approach to reduction.

Salter Harris 2 Radius fracture with anterior angulation

Salter Harris 2 Radius fracture with anterior angulation

Report:

There is a fracture of the radial metaphysis abutting the growth plate. There is associated volar angulation, which involves the volar cortex. There is no involvement of the epiphysis, therefore this is a Salter-Harris 2 fracture. The growth plate is not widened. Note is made that the metaphyseal fracture is complicated with comminution and displacement.

Conclusion:                Complicated Salter-Harris 2 fracture

These images prompted a careful discussion by the surgeon with the parents in regard to options for management including the potential need for internal fixation with either a buttress plate or Kirschner wires intra-operatively if reduction remained unstable. This later proved necessary with K wires the option chosen

Salter Harris 2 Radius fracture with anterior angulation

More information: Wheeless’ textbook

ICE 004

A 64 year old man attends the ED after developing chest pain radiating to the jaw and right arm while playing tennis. The pain has now been present for nearly half an hour and continues unabated.

  • Describe his ECG
  • What are the most important interventions for this man in ED?
  • What is his likely subsequent treatment?

Hyperacute T waves in Acute Myocardial infarction

The ECG shows a number of changes suggesting acute myocardial ischaemia. There is sinus rhythm at 90 beats/minute with tall peaked T waves in leads V2-V4, but no ST elevation. There is additionally ST depression of 1mm in II, III and aVF  (+/- V6) His axis is normal as are other intervals and morphology.

Although we classically look for ST elevation as the signifier of acute myocardial infarction, the earliest ECG change may be marked T wave peaking. We don’t see this often as it occurs so early in the infarct, typically the first 30 minutes. This patient later evolved marked ST elevation in V1-V4 diagnostic of an anteroseptal infarct from LAD occlusion.

The most important issue in this man is to recognise this as an acute coronary syndrome, and make sure he receives:

  • Aspirin 300mg orally stat (antiplatelet action begins within 30 minutes)
  • Heparin 5000U IV bolus and infusion
  • Serial ECGs, initially every 15 mins, looking for ST elevation

IV GTN and morphine can be given to control his pain but they will have minimal effect on infarct size and mortality. Clopidogrel or Ticragelor may be indicated but in this case discuss with cardiology first.

He already meets criteria for coronary angiography. The only real question is the timing and urgency and this should be discussed as soon as possible with the interventional cardiologist.  Should ST elevation develop on serial ECGs (as in this patient) then urgent transfer to the cath lab under a “Code STEMI” protocol is necessary

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

ICE 004

A 64 year old man attends the ED after developing chest pain radiating to the jaw and right arm while playing tennis. The pain has now been present for nearly half an hour and continues unabated.

  • Describe his ECG
  • What are the most important interventions for this man in ED?
  • What is his likely subsequent treatment?

Hyperacute T waves in Acute Myocardial infarction

The ECG shows a number of changes suggesting acute myocardial ischaemia. There is sinus rhythm at 90 beats/minute with tall peaked T waves in leads V2-V4, but no ST elevation. There is additionally ST depression of 1mm in II, III and aVF  (+/- V6) His axis is normal as are other intervals and morphology.

Although we classically look for ST elevation as the signifier of acute myocardial infarction, the earliest ECG change may be marked T wave peaking. We don’t see this often as it occurs so early in the infarct, typically the first 30 minutes. This patient later evolved marked ST elevation in V1-V4 diagnostic of an anteroseptal infarct from LAD occlusion.

The most important issue in this man is to recognise this as an acute coronary syndrome, and make sure he receives:

  • Aspirin 300mg orally stat (antiplatelet action begins within 30 minutes)
  • Heparin 5000U IV bolus and infusion
  • Serial ECGs, initially every 15 mins, looking for ST elevation

IV GTN and morphine can be given to control his pain but they will have minimal effect on infarct size and mortality. Clopidogrel or Ticragelor may be indicated but in this case discuss with cardiology first.

He already meets criteria for coronary angiography. The only real question is the timing and urgency and this should be discussed as soon as possible with the interventional cardiologist.  Should ST elevation develop on serial ECGs (as in this patient) then urgent transfer to the cath lab under a “Code STEMI” protocol is necessary

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

The Arrow of Time

I have of late been reflecting on times past in EM, on how some things persist but others become part of the “good old days” that men of my age start to drone on about if given half a chance. I thought I’d try and create two shortlists, the first one composed of facets of daily 1980’s Casualty life that are now never (or rarely) encountered, and the second my Nostradamoid predictions of innovations to come in the 2020’s ED.  The former was pretty easy, the latter not so much… I do wonder too which routine aspects of practice now will be extinct in 2025?

The 1980’s    

“I think we agree the past is over”    George Bush

  • Epiglottitis   just the odd unimmunised and adult ones now
  • Perforated Peptic Ulcer with board-like rigidity
  • AAA rupture
  • Flail chest from steering wheels in MVA
  • Intracardiac adrenaline for cardiac arrest
  • IV Aminophylline for asthma
  • Orogastric lavage for OD (? therapeutic, ?punitive)
  • Ipecac syrup for childhood poisoning
  • Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage
  • Venous cutdown for difficult IV access
  • ICC insertion with trocars
  • CVC insertion without Ultrasound
  • IVP for diagnosis of renal calculi
  • Death certification for out of hospital deaths

The 2020’s 

“Trying to predict the future is like trying to drive down a country road at night with no lights while looking out the back window.”                Peter Drucker

  • An immediate sensitive + specific bedside test for chest pain
    (so no chest pain units, serial measurements or provocative testing)
  • Wireless ECGs with expanded number of leads
  • Wireless monitoring, no spaghetti to disentangle
  • Accessible and synchronised individual patient medical information
  • Paperless workplace – no written notes
  • Novel non-invasive analgesia modalities – topical/electronic…
  • Self guided lines – will sense/scan patient anatomy and guide themselves to specific designated point eg intrathecal/intra-arterial
  • Rationing of expensive medical therapy and interventions

I’d love to see some comments on my lists, and your suggested additions, particularly  for the next decade. I’ll post the best ones, and maybe bury them in an e-time capsule for unearthing in 2025 or so…

ICE 003

A 37 year old woman presents to the ED with a week long history of a tender rash on the lower limbs and feeling non-specifically unwell. There is no history of trauma.

  • What is the most likely diagnosis and what features in the clinical history and image point towards this ?
  • What diagnoses are associated with this condition ?
  • What investigation and treatment is required in ED ?

 

ICE 003

This patient has erythema nodosum. The pointers in this case include the duration, the fact that it is tender and that the distribution is on the lower limbs (especially anterior tibial) – looking like fading bruises

Erythema nodosum is probably due to antigen/antibody deposition in the subcutaneous and deep dermal tissues. Though many cases are “idiopathic” it is often associated with underlying conditions such as:

  • Bacterial infections – streptococcal, TB, yersinia
  • Other infections – chlamydia, hepatitis B
  • Inflammatory bowel disease – Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Drugs – sulphonamides, oral contraceptive
  • Malignancies – lymphoma, leukaemia

Although the lesions can be biopsied to confirm the diagnosis, ED investigation is largely aimed at detecting serious underlying causes. Investigation should always include a CXR (for sarcoid & TB) and an FBE/ESR (thinking lymphoma & leukaemia). Depending on history and examination, targeted testing for other infections as above may be needed. Symptomatic treatment is with ibuprofen, and in severe cases steroids, with an expectation most cases will resolve over 2-4 weeks.

Like to know more? Dermnet NZ

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

ECG Challenge 2

A 19 year old woman presents to your ED with two hours of rapid palpitations and lightheadedness. She has not had chest pain and has no past medical history of note.  On arrival, she is alert, afebrile with a supine BP of 85/60 mmHg.

Describe and interpret her initial ECG

ECG 1

ECG Challenge 2

This is a difficult ECG to describe. Initially the rhythm strip shows a narrow, regular, extremely fast rhythm at 300/minute most consistent with atrial flutter with 1:1 conduction. In the middle of the rhythm strip there is a small positive deflection after each QRS  as is often seen in AVNRT or AVRT with retrograde P  waves, but with unchanged QRS morphology. At the end of the rhythm strip there is some irregularity briefly with the suggestion of flutter waves at 2:1 conduction, but atrial fibrillation is a differential.  The ST segments are difficult to assess at this rate but appear depressed in many leads. Overall I think the main rhythm disorder here is atrial flutter, but the rate is very concerning.

Ventricular rates of 300/minute are rarely encountered in emergency medicine and in this context are highly suggestive of the presence of an accessory AV pathway. This is because the normal AV node usually acts as a gatekeeper to prevent passage of rates much greater than around 200/minute, with the exception perhaps of the very young,  and highly trained. Rates of 300/minute are generally unstable, poorly tolerated, and may progress to VF, so a plan for rhythm stabilisation is required urgently.

If significant clinical or haemodynamic compromise is present, an immediate synchronised cardioversion should be performed in the safest manner possible.  However in this patient, her clinical status appeared surprisingly stable with the concerns being a borderline normal BP and the possible ST depression.  In this setting, confirmation of the provisional rhythm diagnosis of atrial flutter might be a reasonable next action by either performing a vagotonic manoeuvre or administration of Adenosine intravenously. (That being said, an eminently reasonable and defensible  “safe mode” in any uncertain tachyarrhythmia setting is to proceed straight to electrical cardioversion)

As happens in ED frequently, the situation suddenly just sorted itself out. During the siting of the IV (large bore cannula, proximal ACF vein), the vagotonic stimulus provoked a rhythm change.

ECG 2

ECG Challenge 2

Now there is definitely atrial flutter with 2:1 AV conduction, the more commonly encountered rate for this arrhythmia. This is so called  “typical” flutter, which has negative flutter waves in the inferior leads and is caused by a counterclockwise re-entry mechanism in the right atrium.  The ST segments look much more normal here too.

The short duration of symptoms, clinical stability and lack of obvious precipitants was discussed with the cardiologist and patient, and a plan was agreed to press on and attempt cardioversion chemically with intravenous amiodarone.  Other anti-arrhythmics such as procainamide, or electrical cardioversion and procedural sedation would have also been reasonable options. Reversion to sinus rhythm occurred an hour later, with the following post-reversion ECG.

ECG 3

ECG Challenge 2

Here there is sinus rhythm, P mitrale, and a suggestion of slurred upstroke of the R wave in the chest leads especially V2-4.  These findings support the possible presence of an accessory AV tract or structural heart disease. Given the potentially life threatening nature of her presenting arrhythmia, admission for further investigation was arranged. Goals of investigation include detection of potential precipitants (eg infection, thyroid disease, ischaemia), and more detailed assessment of myocardial function (eg echocardiography and EP studies.)

Key points

1. Heart rates of 300/minute are rare in ED, and usually clinically unstable

2. Rapid rate control +/- reversion is the immediate goal. A definitive rhythm diagnosis can be made later by the electrophysiologist

3. Atrial flutter can manifest varying AV conduction, but 2:1 is most common

ICE 002

A 9 year old boy fell while trampolining and struck his head on the trampoline frame. There was definite loss of consciousness but just for how long is unclear as the only witnesses were friends his age. The clinical image shows findings on the left side of his head.

  • What does the image show and what does it represent ?
  • What other features should be sought on history and physical examination ?
  • What is your plan of investigation and management for this child ?

Battle's sign

This is a so called Battle’s sign (named after a 19th century surgeon) where bruising is seen over the mastoid process. This is due to bleeding that has tracked from a fractured base of skull along the course of the posterior auricular artery. The ear provides protection here so it is unlikely that the bruising is due to direct skin trauma from the fall.

The assessment of children with head injuries is aimed at identifying those at higher risk of significant brain injury and in particular those who might require neurosurgical intervention.  Important symptoms & signs to note include “dangerous” mechanism, persistent GCS<15, repeated vomiting, and signs of depressed or base of skull fracture. These have been combined in various published decision rules including:

  • CHALICE-NICE (a UK developed guideline)
  • CATCH (a Canadian guideline based on their adult CT Head rule)
  • PECARN (an American developed guideline)

All are widely available on-line but share a common problem of a tendency to direct to over ordering of head CT and its attendant risks.

This child however does need a head CT. This may be best done after transfer to a paediatric trauma centre using a low dose radiation protocol. Prophylactic anticonvulsants & antibiotics are not required.

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

ICE 001

A 24 year old woman fell on an outstretched hand while playing netball. She comes to the ED via her GP who has put on a temporary plaster splint.

  • Describe the findings on the X-ray
  • What complications are associated with this injury ?
  • What is the preferred management ?

https://gmep.org/media/11512

This X-ray shows a classic “Galeazzi” fracture dislocation.

There is:

  • Dorsally angulated fracture in the distal third of the radius
  • Palmar dislocation of the distal end of the radius
  • Disruption of the distal radio-ulnar joint (DRUJ)

Clinically their presentation with pain and a deformed distal forearm is indistinguishable from that of the more typical fractures around the wrist (such as a Colles’ fracture). X-ray diagnosis needs careful viewing.

Galeazzi fractures are associated with a number of long term complications, especially when unrecognised or inadequately treated. They can cause long term instability of the DRUJ, limited forearm range of motion, chronic wrist pain and osteoarthritis.

In adults these fractures nearly always require open reduction and internal fixation. The radial fracture will usually be plated and then the DRUJ stabilised either with a plaster or percutaneous pin fixation. The stability of the DRUJ is usually assessed intra-operatively. In children Galeazzi fractures seem to be less often associated with long term DRUJ instability and may be treated with a closed reduction and long arm cast but careful orthopaedic follow up is still required.

 ICE Ian's Clinical Emergencies

The ICE Series

Today I’m really pleased to introduce the first of a new series, the “ICE” quizzes, which have been kindly provided by Professor Ian Rogers from St John of God Murdoch Hospital and University of Notre Dame in Perth, Western Australia. He is one of the best academic emergency physicians in Australia, an excellent teacher, and a great mentor and supporter of my career for over a decade. So welcome to tjdogma Ian!

Here’s his intro to the series:

These cases are designed to appeal to a broad range of learners from undergraduate to advanced post graduate, and across a range of health disciplines. Each has a clinical scenario, a series of questions, a clinical image and finally some professorial ponderings to highlight key learning points. In every one we trust that you will find a few clinical pearls or reminders that you could apply to your patients that you care for in your emergency department or other health setting

The very first in the series, ICE 001 is up and running…

See the complete ICE series:

ECG Challenge

A 64 year old woman is brought by ambulance to the ED for assessment of central chest pain lasting 30 minutes at her home that morning. This occurred at rest, was non radiating and had fully resolved on arrival to the ED after administration of parenteral Morphine, sublingual GTN and oral Aspirin en route. She has no significant past medical history, and there are no previous ECGs for comparison. On examination she is now pain free, looks well and has normal vital signs.

Describe and interpret her ECG:

How will you manage her now?

Her ECG shows sinus rhythm at 72/minute, with first degree heart block and RBBB. The axis is normal with ST elevation in leads 1, AvL  and V2, and ST depression in III and AvF. There is one ventricular ectopic and aVR has a broad positive R wave.  These findings are most consistent with an acute coronary syndrome with the ECG changes suggesting a lateral myocardial territory, and a likely culprit vessel either circumflex or branch of LAD.

Her general examination did not reveal any abnormalities, in particular no murmurs, cardiac failure or abdominal findings. Standard blood tests were sent and a CXR ordered. Her ECG was discussed immediately with the interventional cardiologist who elected to treat medically with Heparin and GTN, await Troponin result,  and not proceed to coronary catheterisation emergently. This decision was influenced by her clinical stability and lack of symptoms.

One hour later, she had another episode of chest pain, and the initial Troponin T returned at 34 ( N= < 15 ng/L ). She was then taken to the cath lab where an angiogram demonstrated a > 90% proximal LAD stenosis. This was stented uneventfully and the post-procedural ECG looked like this:

Although her symptoms had resolved with treatment on arrival, this patient  demonstrates how some acute coronary syndromes will present with benign,  stable clinical features despite a high risk proximal coronary lesion.  The ECG findings in this case were very concerning and strongly suggested ACS, but a judgment call was made that in retrospect led to delay in reperfusion.

Trauma victims need your help

Tomorrow, I’ll be one of 24 cyclists riding 800km over the next week around North eastern Victoria in the Great Alfred BIke Ride to raise funds for the Alfred Hospital Emergency Trauma Centre. We’ll summit Falls Creek and Mt Buller, and circumnavigate Lake Eildon. This is a very worthy and deserving cause and it would be hugely appreciated if anyone wishes to lend their support by making a small (tax deductible) donation here:    Great Alfred Bike Ride

Medical education challenge: teaching small groups of diverse learners

Medical education both undergraduate and postgraduate mostly takes place in small group settings with less than 20 learners, and those of us who teach regularly become comfortable in this setting and proficient in the techniques and skills to make it effective. There is a large education evidence base in a range of disciplines that supports this learning format and it’s popular with learners. Over the last decade, most of my medical teaching has been in small groups and focused on two areas, guiding ACEM trainees to completion of their emergency physician training, and coordination of Continuing Medical Education sessions for medical staff in a large tertiary urban ED. These were both very homogeneous groups of learners – all medical, all on a similar career path to ACEM Fellowship and most from a first world medical training background in either Australia or the UK.

But my career move to a smaller private urban ED earlier this year has presented several new challenges, one of which I want to discuss here with a view to my approach so far, and to seek contributions from readers who may have other better techniques.

The challenge: To successfully teach a small group of medical learners that vary widely in knowledge and experience
The setting: A weekly CME session of 90 minutes duration, I divide this time in two sections with a “data interpretation” break between.
The learners: Variable week to week, but typically a FACEM consultant, two Career Medical Officers, two Medical students (3rd or 5th year) and occasionally one or two Nursing staff

This challenge is commonly encountered in interprofessional teaching and I’ll just elaborate some of the education considerations when planning the session. To some degree it must always be a compromise compared with presenting material to learners at the same level, but there are some unique benefits too.

  • Inclusiveness for all participants, aiming to value input from all levels of learner, and to minimise barriers to them making contributions.
  • Good topic selection, to optimise suitability and relevance as there are widely varying ages, experience and endpoints of learners
  • Flexibility in teaching methods to accommodate a range of learning styles
  • Careful content and pace considerations, to try and achieve balance with new / known and simple / complex material.

I’ve found very little published data on planning and conducting sessions in this area of medical education although I believe it to be a challenge for many of us. An article by Certain et al in 2011 is a well-written review in the clinical setting of ward rounds but in the slightly less dynamic setting of a CME session, I’ve found the following to be most useful and successful so far.

  • Case-based studies, where we dissect a patient presentation in terms of diagnosis, clinical reasoning, investigation strategies and outcomes. These can be selected to highlight a serious or rare presentation, or explore in detail a common less acute one, with questions pitched at different levels. They might have a predominant focus on the treatment or investigation as a key theme. In these I try to encourage the learners to be their own teachers, so my role becomes more facilitator than educator. “Why?” and “How?” questions work well here as they encourage flow of questions and exchange of experience. Medical students who have most recently done basic medical sciences can often provide that underpinning to discussions,  where more advanced learners provide detail around their knowledge and accumulated experiential wisdom.
  • FOAM, Free Online Access to Meducation, is a great way to add some “colour and oomph” to CME by using some content from the rapidly expanding online community of international educators within your session – multiple ways to do this including video, images, powerpoints etc. We’re just at the beginning of knowing how best to incorporate these but I regularly use material from LITFL and many others that have content applicable to all stages of learner. Its a great way to achieve high quality education when you have limited time for lesson preparation, and there’s the huge bonus of showing your students how and where to go exploring for themselves in their own time.
  • Investigation analysis, always popular and relevant, and a key component of most sessions I teach. It can be as simple as ECG or blood gas interpretation or as organised as a Radiology review hour. Questions can be targeted at multiple levels to both establish adequate basic background understanding through to high end and emerging concepts. (so if we take a blood gas as an example, might explore basic approach first, then touch on HH equation and strong iron difference for higher level learners…)
  • Procedure and Equipment reviews, wherein we explore both standard and evolving techniques and technology. In regard to the latter, younger students are often better equipped to contribute, and are vital in demonstrating to older learners how to incorporate new techniques to their education and practice. Role play and simulation are great for learning about equipment, helping to break down barriers between learners and fostering more cohesive and functional teams
  • Journal club, discussion of evidence, and the techniques/pitfalls in its interpretation. These can be great to teach initially how to find and assess/use data, then building to review new and important articles, and to talk around implementation of emerging practices, guidelines and recommendations.

For now I think this is working in my setting, but I’m going to throw it to you and await your tips and tricks! Hopefully you’ll have some other exciting techniques to share.

Ankle ABC’s

A 38 year old truck driver is brought to the ED at 0900 with a dislocated left ankle after inadvertently stepping into a hole and twisting on it when alighting from his truck. He is well with no past medical history, and it’s an isolated injury with no complaints of pain other than that joint.

Examination of his foot is reassuring with good volume DP pulse, normal CRT and no sensory deficit. The skin overlying his distal tibia medially is however stretched and a little pale. In the good old bad old days when I was an intern, I remember vividly seeing this exact injury summarily reduced in Casualty (well it was called that then) without analgesia by orthopaedics on grounds of needing to deal immediately with a compromised joint. Have we evolved from those days? How would you proceed now to relocate this joint in your ED? Do you Xray first?

I think our EDs are now a little more sophisticated, and see no role for “old school” analgesia-less reduction of this injury unless perhaps in multi-trauma with altered conscious state. So here’s how I proceeded…

  • First a quick general medical/secondary survey and review of vitals to ensure an isolated injury. No Xray pre-reduction routinely, but I do photograph them to show the surgeon (and use for teaching later)
  • Secure IV access, then titrated IV analgesia with morphine (other route and agent such as IN, inhalational obviously OK too)
  • Explanation and consent for procedural sedation, with move to resuscitation area, and enlisting of required team members
  • I then like to work through a “checklist” type approach for procedural sedation, whether emergent or elective. This has recently been more prominently discussed in EM settings (an example from LIFL) and though I’m not always a fan, I do always use it for intubation and sedation procedures. This approach is aided by using standardised documentation sheets such as this double-sided one from my last hospital. Draft SCGH ProcSed

So this patient had a full risk assessment, equipment assembled and checked, then a colleague deftly reduced the joint whilst I sedated with IV Propofol. There were no complications, and a plaster slab was applied and the limb elevated.

Two quick tips for young players here. Firstly, I always like to have two checked IVs in place for procedural sedation, with exceptions perhaps for children and quick procedures in well very low risk patients. Failure and loss of IV access may end up being just a minor  glitch, but at worst can be life threatening for the patient.

Secondly, I like to tell patients beforehand there is a small possibility that I will be unable to reduce the joint, as occasionally these prove to be irreducible closed and an open approach in theatre is required.

Here’s his post-reduction ankle Xrays and report

There is a cortical breach within the distal fibula at the level of the ankle joint consistent with a distal fibular fracture, likely Weber B.  No definite medial malleolar fracture is identified, and the ankle mortise does appear widened, with widening of the space between the medial malleolus and talus

So now on to the classification of this injury, is it a Weber A, B or C? I’ve always found this classification hard to remember, but its well explained here on the Radiopedia and Bone school sites. This injury may be a Weber B or a Weber C as the ankle mortise is widened medially, but one very significant component not visualised on this Xray is the disruption of the tibio-fibular syndesmosis which occurs with the Pronation/External rotation (PER) mechanism. This was the major concern of the orthopaedic surgeon who reviewed this patient, as it is crucial for joint stability and influences the decision/requirement for ORIF. Even if tibio-fibular widening isn’t seen on Xray, it may still be demonstrated when examined under anaesthesia. He asked me to additionally obtain an xray of the full length of the fibula, which I thought odd at the time as there was no clinical tenderness more proximally.

So another lesson (re-learned) for me, I wouldn’t have picked up this proximal fracture.

This man was treated with ORIF, and is now up and about.

 

A puzzling shoulder

A 56 year old woman re-presents to the ED with profound right arm weakness, one day after having been assessed and treated for five days of right shoulder pain. She is a right-handed accountant, who had just been discharged after uncomplicated elective coronary artery grafting, on a background of hypertension and type 2 Diabetes. She had no prior shoulder problems or arthritis.

The pain had initially commenced three days post-op and had been mild but after discharge had worsened, being maximal over the lateral shoulder and unresponsive to oxycodone and paracetamol. There had been no known trauma, other joints involved or associated symptoms. The notes from her previous examination stated that she had been afebrile, with tenderness over the deltoid, full active ROM, and no neurovascular abnormalities in the arm. Investigation with a plain radiograph had been normal, but a shoulder ultrasound had shown the following:

Radiologist report
Appearances strongly suggest a small full thickness tear of the distal supraspinatus tendon measuring approximately 5mm, with substantial bursal thickening. On abduction, there is no obvious impingement and the patient’s pain does not worsen.
Conclusion:
Small full thickness cuff tear with bursal thickening.

Analgesia had been improved by NSAIDs and a sling, and a phone consultation with an Orthopaedic surgeon had led to offer of a steroid/LA injection, but this had been declined by the patient. She had been discharged with the diagnosis of Supraspinatus tendinitis/tear, and an outpatient follow up with the surgeon scheduled for three days later.

When now (unexpectedly) reviewing her in the ED, she is sitting comfortably supporting her right arm with her left, and complains of severe weakness in the arm. She is unable to lift it actively and is pain free with normal observations. Her shoulder to inspection appears normal, but there is no active abduction at all, weak external rotation and flexion, and normal power in extension and internal rotation. There is full passive ROM and neurovascular examination reveals normal pulses, tone, power and reflexes in the limb, with diminished sensation in the right axillary nerve distribution.

These findings are most consistent with loss of axillary nerve function, and I admit to being stumped when confronted with this complete change in her symptoms and findings. Her first presentation had been dominated by pain with no neurological features and the second the reverse. I wondered if she had somehow sustained an injury during her surgery, something akin to "Saturday night palsy", so discussed it with her surgeon. He had seen CAGs surgery complicated by lower brachial plexus root neuropraxia as a result of retraction of the chest, but he hadn't seen this kind of shoulder problem before. He suggested I call a neurologist and consider an MRI. The MRI radiologist advised that they would routinely wait six weeks after surgery such as this with sternal wires for non-emergent problems. So I then called the aforementioned orthopaedic surgeon and a neurologist who both immediately knew the diagnosis on the clinical story alone.

This condition is "Brachial neuritis" or "Parsonage-Turner syndrome" an acute idiopathic neuropathy with predominantly motor rather than sensory findings. It presents initially with severe pain in the shoulder followed by weakness affecting various branches of the brachial plexus, with the upper trunk most commonly affected. (anatomy reminder) The condition can be bilateral, and 80% of patients will recover function although this may take two years.

I hadn't heard of this condition before and a search of the standard EM texts wasn't so helpful with only Tintinalli including it. I suspect this might be because many of these patients would be referred direct to neurologists rather than ED. I've posted this case mainly to share my illumination of something completely new, particularly given the puzzling nature of the presentation (use of dogma no. 3 didn't help me this time)  And the supraspinatus tear? Just an incidental finding that succeeded in throwing us off the scent!

References
Emedicine
Wheeless' textbook of Orthopaedics

Visual Aid Questions in Emergency Medicine

Visual aid questions (VAQs) are employed widely in medical and other biological science examinations as these environments have a wealth of visually analysed material in daily practice. VAQs comprise one of the three sections of the ACEM Fellowship written examination, in which ACEM examiners assess the candidate's competence to:

  1. Recognise and describe visual data encountered in Emergency Medicine practice
  2. Synthesise relevant and negative features of this data
  3. Interpret the data within a specific clinical context.
  4. Display knowledge consistent with safe contemporary Emergency Medicine practice in  questions relating to the data.
  5. Consistently and adequately interpret a range of medical data in a limited time period

The ACEM format is eight questions in 80 minutes, no reading time, with a typical breakdown being two ECGs, two investigations, two radiology and two clinical images. This section has historically demonstrated lower overall pass rates by candidates than the other two written sections. (MCQs and Short Answer Questions) Several reasons contribute to this, but I believe the most important is insufficient practice (to time) of the typical range of material, leading to poor time management and answer structure when under fire on the day. In an attempt to demystify the VAQ, especially for those of you approaching the lower slopes of Mt FACEM, I'll firstly outline how VAQs are created, then try the process with some new images, and finally list my tips to help improve your success at this domain of the quiz.

 Creation

An ACEM committee of experienced FACEMs source original props from their daily work in a wide range of Australasian EDs. One will usually generate a draft question for the prop, then disseminate to the others for editing/changes/comments to create a final draft. All VAQs have the initial question "Describe and interpret"…, but less complex props will require a second question, either specific such as "Outline your further investigation", or broader "Outline your management" to fully utilise the 10 minute timeframe. (In the most recent VAQ examination 2012.2, there were three of the eight questions with just "Describe and interpret", and five with an additional second question.) After reaching final draft stage, that question is road tested by ACEM examiners who haven't seen it before, and after considering their feedback, the question is finalised and banked for use in a future exam.

Let's try this ourselves - say we wish to create an orthopaedic VAQ on the topic of knee fracture. We have three knee Xrays available and our question stem is: "A 74 year old woman is brought to your ED with a painful knee after a mechanical fall at her home. There are no other injuries, but she is unable to bear weight on it so an Xray is performed." Decide which image is most suitable for use in the ACEM exam (that is, at a level of difficulty/complexity suitable for an emergency physician) and whether it would be  "D + I" for 100% of the ten minutes, or require an additional question. I'll put my thoughts on their merits as well as a description for each.

I think the best VAQs are those which have a visual prop complex enough to not require a second question, and which most reflect either clinically important or frequently encountered material in the ED. So I'm not keen on rarities or "spot the lesion" type props with no differentials to consider, and as an ACEM examiner, I find it easier to set pass criteria for a one part (100% D+I) question

Image 1 is an AP Xray of the left knee demonstrating a lateral tibial plateau fracture with obvious depression of the tibial plateau cortex and increased lateral tibial metaphyseal opacification. There is no obvious cortical breach or deformity, nor abnormal soft tissue features.

Image 2 is another AP Xray of the left knee; it shows an impacted distal femoral facture at the insertion site of the femoral component of a total knee replacement. The tibia is angulated laterally mildly relative to the femur and the prosthesis appears enlocated, but this requires verification with a lateral view. There is popliteal vascular calcification and the bones are osteopenic generally.

Image 3 is an AP Xray of the right knee that shows increased tibial metaphyseal opacification laterally, minimal depression of the lateral tibial plateau, and a slightly unclear cortical margin of the tibia in this area compared with the medial side. The soft tissues appear to show a displaced fat pad over the distal femur laterally which would suggest a haemarthrosis and further support the diagnosis of a relatively undisplaced lateral tibial plateau fracture.

I would choose the first and second images to use as they have more content to assess and describe, and greater clinical significance. The first would require a second question as it is an obvious fracture without xray complexity, perhaps a 50/50 time split. Either treatment or further investigation would be appropriate as a second question. Xray 2 might be OK as a 100% question. The third image on its own has subtle abnormalities that I think would be hard for the examiner to set strict pass criteria for, and which might be missed if a candidate was rushing to make up time. If used the question would be enhanced greatly by utilising this lateral view which doesn’t further demonstrate the tibial plateau fracture, but does show the associated lipohaemarthrosis. (and a fabella)

Tips for success

  1. Practise to time - this appears obvious but repeatedly doing VAQs to the 10 minute limit is vital. Performance will improve and gradually evolve to a concise style utilising a  "dot point"/ bulleted format, with highlighting of important positive and negative elements. Don't rewrite question or do "key points" at the start of your answer.
  2. Certain types of props are used in every exam, for example ECGs, so becoming adept at ECG interpretation will clearly serve you well. Similarly with common imaging (CXR, CT Brain) and investigations (ABGs and electrolytes) Many of these VAQs are completely predictable and you can be ready to nail them. ECGs lend themselves well to a template style approach, here's an example: LITFL ECG template
  3. Create your own and share with colleagues - it's also a good, fun way to study and revise topics.
  4. Do VAQs from previous ACEM examinations; I suggest you focus mainly on those from the last few years.
  5. Show your questions and answers to ACEM examiners or experienced FACEMs and listen to their feedback
  6. Write legibly. Write legibly. Write legibly!
  7. Be very careful with ABG and other calculations, its very easy to get these wrong when you're in a hurry, so take a few extra seconds to check them twice
  8. At least once before the exam, do eight VAQs to time and get them marked, its very different to one or two at a time, and a real test of your technique.
  9. Always move on at the end of each allotted 10 minutes as its virtually impossible to make up time once you're behind the clock. If however this still happens, put all the information you would have expanded on in your last question as a bulleted outline so the examiner will at least see the scope of your intended answer - it might still be enough for a pass! This is much better than writing an unfinished answer for the, say 6 minutes, that was all you the time you had remaining.
If you have other tried and true approaches I’d love to hear from you.